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Electrical Engineering MCQ|Objective questions Electrical Engineering|Industries Extension officer|Lecturer in Polytechnics set 4

June 22, 2019
Electrical Engineering MCQ|Objective questions Electrical Engineering|Industries Extension officer|Lecturer in Polytechnics set 4


A short circuit is that which 
(a) uses short pieces of wire 
(b) goes only a short distance
(c) is used for dimming light 
(d) offers very low resistance path for current to flow



Which of the following stays the same in all parts of a series circuit? 
(a) Voltage 
(b) power
(c) resistance
(d) current

 The resistance of the windings of a generator is known as 
(a) generated resistance
 (b) field resistance
(c) internal resistance
 (d) terminal resistance


 Ohm‟s law is applicable to 
(a) Semi-conductors 
(b) vacuum tubes
(c) electrolytes 
(d) none of these


A wire of length l of circular cross section of radius r has a resistance of R ohnms. Another wire of same material and a cross sectional radius 2r will have the same resistance R if the length is 
(a) 2l 
(b) l/2
(c) 4l 
(d) l2


 With the rise in temperature, the temperature coefficient of resistance 
(a) remains unaffected 
(b) increases
(c) decreases 
(d) uncertain


The values of temperature coefficient of resistance of a given conductor are‟ 
(a) the same at different temperatures 
(b) higher at higher temperatures
(c) different at different temperatures 
(d) none of the above


 Temperature coefficient of resistance is defined as 
(a)increase in resistance per ohm per °C
 (b) increase in resistance per °C
(c) decrease in resistance per ohm per °C
(d) the ratio of decrease in resistance per °C to the resistance at 0°C


 The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two resistors is 12Ω. One of the resistance wires breaks and the effective resistance becomes 18Ω. The resistance of the broken wire is 

(a) 48 Ω
 (b) 18 Ω
(c) 36 Ω
 (d) 24 Ω

When one leg of a parallel circuit gets opened out, the current drawn from the supply will
(a)reduce 
(b) increase 

(c) remain the same 
(d) uncertain
Electrical Engineering MCQ|Objective questions Electrical Engineering|Industries Extension officer|Lecturer in Polytechnics set 4 Electrical Engineering MCQ|Objective questions Electrical Engineering|Industries Extension officer|Lecturer in Polytechnics set 4 Reviewed by Bibi Mohanan on June 22, 2019 Rating: 5

Electrical Engineering MCQ|Objective questions Electrical Engineering|Industries Extension officer|Lecturer in Polytechnics set 3

June 22, 2019

Electrical Engineering MCQ|Objective questions Electrical Engineering|Industries Extension officer|Lecturer in Polytechnics set 3



Which of the following relation is incorrect 
(a) P = VI
 (b) P=I2R
(c) P= V∕R2
(d) P= V2∕R


 If I, R and t are the current, resistance and time respectively, then according to Joule‟s law heat produced will be proportional to 
(a) I2Rt 
(b) I2Rt2
(c) I2R2
(d) I2R2t2



 When a low resistance is connected in parallel with a high resistance, the combined
resistance is ( B )

(a) always more than the high resistance 
(b) always less than the low resistance
(c) always between the value of high and low resistance
(d) either lower or higher than low resistance depending on the value of high resistance

Two 100 W, 200 V lamps are connected in series across a 200 V supply. The total power consumed by each lamp will be watts. ( A )
(a)25 
(b) 50
(c) 100 
(d) 200


The factor which will have least effect on the voltage at the load end of a two-wire supply circuit is ( B )

(a) length of the circuit 
(b) whether supply frequency is 25 Hz or 50 Hz
(c) amount of load on the circuit 
(d) cross section of the current wires


For a given line voltage, four heating coils will produce maximum heat when connected
(a)all in parallel 
(b) all in series 
(c) with two parallel pairs in series 
(d) on pair in parallel with the other two in series


For current to flow, a circuit must be ( C )
(a) Isolated 
(b) insulated
(c) complete 
(d) protected


If a live‟ conductor of a public supply touches earth metal ( D )

(a) supply voltage will increase 
(b) supply voltage will decrease
(c) no current will flow 
(d) current will flow to earth


The material used for fuse must have 
(a) Low melting point and low specific resistance
(b) Low melting point and high specific resistance
(c) High melting point and low specific resistance

 Which of the following statements regarding a capacitor is not true? 
(a) dc cannot flow through it (b) ac can flow through‟ it
(c) current flows when a capacitor is connected for the first time across a battery

(d) slight moisture increases its capacitance
Electrical Engineering MCQ|Objective questions Electrical Engineering|Industries Extension officer|Lecturer in Polytechnics set 3 Electrical Engineering MCQ|Objective questions Electrical Engineering|Industries Extension officer|Lecturer in Polytechnics set 3 Reviewed by Bibi Mohanan on June 22, 2019 Rating: 5

Electrical Engineering MCQ|Objective questions Electrical Engineering|Industries Extension officer|Lecturer in Polytechnics set 2

June 22, 2019

Electrical Engineering MCQ|Objective questions Electrical Engineering|Industries Extension officer|Lecturer in Polytechnics set 2



The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two branches is 12 ohms. If the resistance of one branch is 18 ohms, what is the resistance of the other ? 
(a) 18 Ω (b) 36 Ω
(c) 48 Ω (d) 64 Ω

Ans :( B )


 Four wires if same material, the same cross-sectional area and the same length when connected in parallel give a resistance of 0.25 Ω. If the same four wires are connected is series the effective resistance will be 
(a) 1 Ω (b) 2 Ω
(c) 3 Ω (d) 4 Ω

Ans :( D)

 Which of the following materials has a negative temperature co-efficient of resistance?
(a) Copper (b) Aluminum
(c) Carbon (d) Brass 

Ans :( C )

 Which of the following statement is true? 
(a) A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(b) A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(c)A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter
(d) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter

Ans: ( C )

 A closed switch has a resistance of 
(a) Zero (b) about 50 ohms
(c) about 500 ohms (d) infinity


Ans: ( A )


The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends on 
(a)The magnitude of voltage on the conductor
(b)The magnitude of current flowing through it
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Ans: ( A )


Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of a series circuit? 
(a) Voltage (b) Current
(c) Power (d) Resistance

Ans: ( B )


 In an electric kettle water boils in 10 minutes. It is required to boil the boiler in 15 minutes, using same supply mains 
(a) Length of heating element should be decreased
(b) Length o heating element should be increased
(c) Length of heating element has no effect on heating if water
(d) None of the above

Ans: ( A )

 Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in 
(a) Parallel (b) series
(c) series-parallel (d) end-to-end


Ans: ( A )


Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high 
(a) Resistance (b) inductance
(c) capacitance (d) impedance


Ans: ( B )
Electrical Engineering MCQ|Objective questions Electrical Engineering|Industries Extension officer|Lecturer in Polytechnics set 2 Electrical Engineering MCQ|Objective questions Electrical Engineering|Industries Extension officer|Lecturer in Polytechnics set 2 Reviewed by Bibi Mohanan on June 22, 2019 Rating: 5

Electrical Engineering MCQ|Objective questions Electrical Engineering|Industries Extension officer|Lecturer in Polytechnics

June 22, 2019

Electrical Engineering MCQ|Objective questions Electrical Engineering|Industries Extension officer|Lecturer in Polytechnics


One commercial unit of energy equals 
(a) 500 watt-seconds 
(b) one watt-hour
(c)One kilowatt-hour
 (d) ten kilowatt-hour


The electrical energy required to heat a bucket of water to a certain temperature is 4 kWh. If the heat losses are 20 percent, the energy input is 
(a) 2 kWh 
(b) 3.2 kWh
(c) 5 k Wh 
(d) 6 k Wh


3. The maximum current rating for a 10kΩ, 0.5 W resistor is 
(a) 0.707 mA 
(b) 7.07 mA
(c) 14.14 mA 
(d) 28.28 mA


The substances which have a large number of free electrons and offer a low resistance
are called 
(a) Insulators (b) inductors
(c)Semi-conductors (d) conductors


The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as 
(a) length 
(b) area of cross-section
(c) temperature 
(d) resistivity


With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals 
(a) Increases 
(b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases
 (d) remains constant



The resistance of a copper wire 200 m long is 21Ω. If its thickness (diameter) is 0.44 mm, its specific resistance is around 
(a) 1.2 x 10-8Ω-m 
(b) 1.4 x 10-8Ω-m
(c) 1.6 x 10-8Ω-m 
(d) 1.8 x 10-8Ω-m

Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are connected in parallel. The total resistance of the combination is 
(a)5 ohms
(b) 10 ohms
(c)15 ohms 
(d) 55 ohms


9. The resistance of two wires is 25 Ω when connected in series and 6 Ω when joined in parallel. The resistance of each wire is 
(a)10 Ω, 15 Ω 
(b) 20 Ω, 30 Ω
(c) 5 Ω, 10 Ω 
(d) 10 Ω, 20 Ω

10. An instrument which detects electric current is known as 
(a) Voltmeter 
(b) rheostat
(c) wattmeter 
(d) galvanometer

Electrical Engineering MCQ|Objective questions Electrical Engineering|Industries Extension officer|Lecturer in Polytechnics Electrical Engineering MCQ|Objective questions Electrical Engineering|Industries Extension officer|Lecturer in Polytechnics Reviewed by Bibi Mohanan on June 22, 2019 Rating: 5

RRB JE Previous Questions|RRB JE Solved Paper Set 13

April 17, 2019

RRB JE Previous Questions|RRB JE Solved Paper Set 13



81. If ` 1440 is divided into two parts in which one part is  of the second, then 9 the smaller part is
1) ` 405 2) ` 630 3) ` 810 4) ` 1035


82. If √4*n = 1024, then the value of n is
1) 5 2) 8 3) 10 4) 12 

84. A man covers half of his journey at 6 km/ hr and the remaining half at 3 km/ hr. His average speed is
1) 4 km/ hr 2) 4.5 km/ hr 3) 9 km/ hr 4) 3 km/ hr


85. The average weight of 8 boys is increased by 1.5 kg when one of the boys, who weights 65 kg, is replaced by a new boy. The weight of the new boy is1) 70 kg 2) 74 kg 3) 76 kg 4) 77 kg


4 86. The 4/5 th of a certain number is 64. Half of the number is-
1) 40 2) 32 3) 80 4) 16


87. The ratio between the present ages of Ravi and Jai is 3:2. If Ravi was 6 years older than Jai, four years back, how old is Jai now?
1) 6 years 2) 12 years 3) 18 years 4) Data inadequate



89. The length of a rectangle is increased by 60%. By what perent would the width have to be decreased to maintain the same area?
1 2 1) 37  % 2) 60% 3) 75% 4) 66 % 2 3


90. By selling a tape-recorder for ` 950, I lose 5%. What percent shall I gain by selling it for a 1040?
1) 4% 2) 4.5% 3) 40% 4) 5%

91. When 1 is added to each of the given two numbers, their ratio becomes 3 : 4 and when 5 is subtracted from each, the ratio becomes 7 : 10. The numbers are:
1) 8, 11 2) 11, 15 3) 26, 35 4) 27, 36


92. 5 men or 9 women can do a piece of work 19 days. In how many days will 3 men and 6 women working together will finish the work?
1) 10 days 2) 15 days 3) 87 days 4) 38 days

93. Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 minutes will 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, then the tank will be filled in
1) 10 minutes 2) 12 minutes 3) 15 minutes 4) 25 minutes


94. A train 132 metre long passes a telegraph post in 6 seconds. The speed of the train is

1) 70 km/ hr 2) 72 km/ hr 3) 79.2 km/ hr 4) 80 km/ hr

95. The radius of the wheel of a vehicle is 70 cm. The wheel makes 10 revolutions in 5 seconds. The speed of the vehicle is
1) 29.46 km/ hr 2) 31.68 km/ hr 3) 36.25 km/ hr 4) 32.72 km/ hr


97. The area of the base of a rectangular tank is 6500 cm2 and the volume of water contained in it is 2.6 cubic metres. The depth of the water tank is
1) 2.5 metre 2) 3 metre 3) 5.5 metre 4) 4 metre


98. Two angles are complementary, if the sum of their measures is1) 90° 2) 100° 3) 180° 4) 360°


Answers:

81-2; 82-3; 83-3; 84-1; 85-4; 86-1; 87-2; 88-4; 89-1; 90-1; 91-3; 92-2; 93-2; 94-3; 95-2; 96-4; 97-4; 98-1; 99-3; 100-1

RRB JE Previous Questions|RRB JE Solved Paper Set 13 RRB JE Previous Questions|RRB JE Solved Paper Set 13 Reviewed by Bibi Mohanan on April 17, 2019 Rating: 5

RRB JE Previous Questions|RRB JE Solved Paper Set 12

April 17, 2019


RRB JE Previous Questions|RRB JE Solved Paper Set 12




61. In the alternatives given below, three are alike in some manner while the fourth
one is different. Choose the odd one.
1) Garo 2) Khasi 3) Kangra 4) Jaintia
62. In the alternatives given below, three are alike in some manner while the fourth
one is different. Choose the odd one.
1) Triangle 2) Tangent 3) Square 4) Rhombus
63. In the alternatives given below, three are alike in some manner while the fourth
one is different. Choose the odd one.
1) Up 2) Down 3) Above 4) Small
64. In the alternatives given below, theree are alike in some manner while the fourth
one is different. Choose the odd one.
1)      Run 2) Walk 3) Think 4) Jump
65. 'Flower' is related to 'Essence' in the same way as 'Oven' is related to1) Vapour 2) Fire 3) Heat 4) Steam
66. 'Gravity' is related to 'Pull' in the same way as 'Magnetism' is related to1) Repulsion 2) Separation 3) Attraction 4) Push
67. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the
question mark (?) in the given series.
120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ?
1) 35 2) 38 3) 39 4) 40
68. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the
question mark (?) in the given series.
1, 5, 14, 30, 55, 91, ?
1) 130 2) 140 3) 150 4) 160
69. Choose the correct altrnative that will continue the same pattern and replace the
question mark (?) in the given series.
2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ?
1)      194 2) 210 3) 252 4) 258
70. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the
question mark (?) in the given series.
1) KSU 2) LMN 3) SOV 4) SOW
71. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the
question mark (?) in the given series.
M, N, O, L, R, I, V, ?
1) A 2) E 3) F 4) H
72. A and B are brothers. C and D are sisters. A's son is D's brother. How is B
related to C?
1) Father 2) Brother 3) Grandfather 4) Uncle
73. Introducing a man, a woman said, 'His wife is the only daughter of my father'.
How is that man related to the woman?
1) Brother 2) Father-in-law
3) Husband 4) Maternal Uncle
74. A man is facing West. He turns 45° in the clock-wise direction and then another
180° in the same direction and then 270° in the anti-clockwise directon. Which
direction is he facing now?
1) South 2) North-West 3) West 4) South-West
75. A man starts from a point 'X' and walks 3 km southwards, then he turns left and
walks 6 km. In which direction is he from the starting point?
1) South-West 2) South-East 3) West 4) South
76. The H.C.F. of 595 and 252 is1) 1 2) 7 3) 11 4) 17
77. The L.C.M. of 26, 56, 104 and 182 is1) 456 2) 728 3) 748 4) 1274
78. 6.5 × 4.7 + 6.5 × 5.3)/( 1.3 × 7.9 - 1.3 × 6.9) = ?
1) 3.9 2) 39 3) 34.45 4) 50
79. A student was asked to divide a number by 3. But, instead of dividing it, he
multiplied it by 3 and got 29.7. What was the correct answer?
1) 3.3 2) 9.3 3) 9.8 4) 9.9
80. 5852 ÷ 28 × ? - 1653 = 1064
1) 9 2) 13 3) 15 4) 18


Answers :

61-3; 62-2; 63-4; 64-3; 65-3; 66-3; 67-1; 68-2; 69-3; 70-1; 71-2; 72-4; 73-3; 74-4; 75-2; 76-2; 77-2; 78-4; 79-1; 80-2

RRB JE Previous Questions|RRB JE Solved Paper Set 12 RRB JE Previous Questions|RRB JE Solved Paper Set 12 Reviewed by Bibi Mohanan on April 17, 2019 Rating: 5

RRB JE Previous Question paper| Solved paper RRB JE Set 11

April 17, 2019

RRB JE Previous Question paper| Solved paper RRB JE  Set 11



41. 'Jamini Roy' was a famous1) Dance 2) Magician 3) Cartoonist 4) Painter


42. 'NCERT' stands for1) National Committee of Educational Research and Training
2) National Council of Educational Research and Training
3) National Council for Educational Research and Teaching
4) National Council of Employment Resources and Training



43. Who directed the film 'Slumdog Millionaire'?
1) Anil Kapoor 2) Prakash Jha
3) Danny Boyle 4) Simon Beautoy


44. Who is the first female amputee to climb Mount Everest?
1) Samina Baig 2) Arunima Sinha
3) Bachhendri Pal 4) Raha Moharrak


45. Who was declared 'Man of the Series' in the ICC Champions Trophy 2013?
1) Shikhar Dhawan 2) Virat Kohli
3) Ravindra Jadeja 4) MS Dhoni


46. Which among the following States is considered India's most flood-prone State?
1) Uttarakhand 2) Jharkhand
3) Bihar 4) Nagaland


47. Who among the following is the author of the book 'Mudra Rakshasa'?
1) Kalidasa 2) Kalhana 3) Kautilya 4) Vishakhadatta


48. 'Vishnupad Temple' is situated in
1) Gaya 2) Varanasi 3) Rajgir 4) Nalanda


49. 'Jiradei', the birthplace of Dr. Rajendra Prasad comes under which district of Bihar?
1) Patna 2) Madhubani 3) Gaya 4) Siwam


50. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is situated in
1) Bengaluru 2) Hyderabad 3) Ahmedabad 4) Mumbbai


51. X is mightier than Y and Y is mightier than Z. P is mightier than Q but inferior to Y. Q is mightier than Z. Who is the weakest among all?
1) X 2) Z 3) Q 4) P


52. If each of the digits in the number '92581473' are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits, which are fourth from the right and third from the left in the new arrangement?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four


53. In a certain code, EAT is written as 318 and CHAIR is written as 24156. How will TEACHER be written in that code?
1) 8812346 2) 8321436 3) 8312436 4) 8313426


54. If NOIDA is written as 39658, how will INDIA be written?
1) 36568 2) 63568 3) 63569 4) 65368


55. In a certain code language, '253' means 'books are old', '546' means 'man is old'
and '378' means 'buy good books'. What stands for 'are' in that code?
1) 2 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6


56. If 'oranges' are 'apples', 'bananas' are 'apricots', 'apples' are 'chillies', 'apricots' are
'oranges' and 'chillies' are 'bananas', then which of the following are green in
colour?
1) Apricots 2) Apples 3) Chillies 4) Bananas


57. In a certain code, ROAD is written as URDG. How will SWAN written in that
code?
1) VXDQ 2) VZDQ 3) VZCP 4) UXDQ


58. If '+' means '÷', '×' means '÷' '÷' means '+' and '-' means '×', then which of the
following will be the value of the expressions?
252 × 9 - 5 + 32 ÷ 92
1) 95 2) 168 3) 192 4) 200


59. If P denotes '÷', Q denotes '×' R denotes '+' and S denotes '-', then.
18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 S 6 = ?
1) 95 2) 53 3) 51 4) 57


60. The following equation may be corrected by interchanging which two signs?
5 × 15 ÷ 7 - 20 + 4 = 77
1) - and + 2) × and ÷ 3) + and ÷ 4) + and ×


Answers:

41-4; 42-2; 43-3; 44-2; 45-1; 46-3; 47-4; 48-1; 49-4; 50-1; 51-2; 52-2; 53-3; 54-2; 55-1; 56-4; 57-2; 58-4; 59-2; 60-3

RRB JE Previous Question paper| Solved paper RRB JE Set 11 RRB JE Previous Question paper| Solved paper RRB JE  Set 11 Reviewed by Bibi Mohanan on April 17, 2019 Rating: 5

RRB JE previous Questions|RRB JE Solved paper Set 10

April 17, 2019


RRB JE previous Questions|RRB JE Solved paper Set 10




21. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
1) Electric Field 2) Average Velocity
3) Power 4) Magnetic Momentum


22. If the velocity of a body is doubled
1) Its Kinetic Energy is doubled 2) Its potential Energy is doubled
3) Its Momentum is doubled 4) Its Acceleration is doubled


23. Clothes keep us warm in winter because they1) supply heat
2) do not rediate heat
3) prevent air from contacting the body
4) prevent the heat of the body from escaping


24. Permanent magnet can be made from
1) Cobalt 2) Aluminum 3) Zinc 4) Lead


25. Who among the following is known as 'Father of Biology'?
1) Aristotle 2) Darwin 3) Lamark 4) Hippocrates


26. Spiral shape bacteria is called
1) Diplococus 2) Bacillus 3) Cocus 4) Spirillum


27. Which of the folloiwng bones is not found in human leg?
1) Tibia 2) Humerus 3) Femur 4) Fibula


28. The enzyme found in human saliva is
1) Renin 2) Ptylin 3) Tenin 4) Resin


29. Virus of 'Bird Flu' is also known as
1) NH51 2) NH15 3) H5N1 4) N5H1


30. 'Gypsum' is an ore of
1) Iron 2) Calcium 3) Sodium 4) Magnesium


31. Which of the folloiwng is used for killing rats?
1) Zinc Phosphide 2) Duralumin 3) Zinc Oxide 4) Sodium Nitrate


32. Which of the following is not an isotope of Hydrogen?
1) Protium 2) Eritium 3) Deuterium 4) Tritium


33. Which of the following is not an Input Device?
1) Keyboard 2) Scanner 3) Mouse 4) Printer


34. http://www.discovery.com is an example of
1) Web brower 2) Website
3) Web page 4) Internet Service Provider


35. A prescribed set of well-defined instructions for solving mathematical problems
is called1) A Compiler 2) A code
3) A description 4) An algorithm


36. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of the
State Policy?
1) Part I 2) Part III 3) Part IV 4) Part V


37. The 44th amendment in the Constitution of India removed which one of the
following rights from the category of Fundamental Rights?
1) Freedom of Speech 2) Equality before Law
3) Right of Property 4) Freedom of Religion


38. Who was the first Chief Minister of Bihar?
1) Krishna Singh 2) K.B. Sahay
3) Mahamaya Prasad Sinha 4) Karpoori Thakur


39. Who was the Prime Minister of India just before Dr. Manmohan Singh?
1) H.D. Deve Gowda 2) I.K. Gujral
3) P.V. Narasimha Rao 4) Atal Bihari Vajpayee


40. Japan's Parliament is known as

1) Diet 2) Dail 3) Yuan 4) Tokyo House

Answers:

21-3; 22-3; 23-4; 24-2; 25-1; 26-4; 27-2; 28-2; 29-3; 30-2; 31-1; 32-2; 33-4; 34-2; 35-4; 36-3; 37-3; 38-1; 39-4; 40-1

RRB JE previous Questions|RRB JE Solved paper Set 10 RRB JE previous Questions|RRB JE Solved paper Set 10 Reviewed by Bibi Mohanan on April 17, 2019 Rating: 5

RRB JE Previous Questions|RRB JE Solved Paper Set 9

April 17, 2019

RRB JE Previous Questions|RRB JE Solved Paper Set 9



1. Which of the following was the capital of 'Kuru' Mahajanapada?
1) Mathura 2) Indraprastha 3) Videha 4) Mithila

2. Out of the following remains excavated in Indus Valley, which one indicates the commercial and econimic development?

1) Pottery 2) Seals 3) Boats 4) Houses

3. Which of the folliwng is not an example of literature of Vedic tradition?
1) Vedas 2) Puranas 3) Vedangas 4) Purvas

4. The Indian king who opposed Alexander was
1) Ambhi 2) Porus 3) Dhananand 4) Mahapadmananda

5. Who laid the foundation of the city Patliputra?
1) Udayan 2) Ashoka
3) Bimbisara 4) Mahapadmananda

6. What was the name of Budha's Charioteer?
1) Manna 2) Channa 3) Devadata 4) Raghu

7. The most famous Kushan ruler was1) Rudradaman 2) Vasudeva I
3) Kanishka 4) Ashoka

8. Between which two rulers was the first Battle of Panipat fought?
1) Akbar and Bahlol Lodi 2) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
3) Bairam Khan and Sikandar Lodi 4) Shahjahan and Daulat Khan Lodi

9. When and where was the 'Ghadar Party' founded?
1) America, 1913 2) England, 1917
3) Denmark, 1921 4) Scotland, 1925

10. Gandhiji's movement of boycotting the foreign goods aimed at
1) Promotion of Welfare State 2) Creating anti-British sentiments
3) Promotion of Cottage Industry 4) Full independence


11. Which one of the following leaders belonged to the extremist wing of the
Congress?
1) Aurobindo Ghosh 2) Dadabhai Naoroji
3) G.K.Gokhale 4) S.N.Banerjee

12. At the Second Round Table Conference, the Indian National Congress was
represented by1) Jawaharlal Nehru 2) Rajendra Prasad
3) M.K.Gandhi 4) Vallabh Bhai Patel

13. Earth's gravitational pull in minimum in
1) Troposphere 2) Stratosphere
3) Thermosphere 4) Exosphere

14. The most abundant element in the Earth's Crust is
1) Aluminum 2) Silica 3) magnesium 4) Sodium

15. Which of the following is not a Kharif crop?
1) Rice 2) Maize 3) Cotton 4) Barley

16. 'Palghat' is a division of which of the following Railways?
1) Southern Railway 2) South Eastern Railway
3) South Central Railway 4) South Western Railway

17. Which of the following Unin Terriotories of India has the lowest population?
1) Pondicherry 2) Daman and Diu
3) Lakshadweep 4) Andaman and Nicobar

18. 'Kakolat Water fall' is situated in which of the following States?
1) Bihar 2) Uttar Pradesh
3) Himachal Pradesh 4) Uttarakhand

19. Which one of the following longitudes determines the Indian Standard Time?
1) 85.5°E 2) 86.5°E 3) 84.5°E 4) 82.5°E

20. The Nagarjunasagar Dam is built across which ofthe following rivers?
1) Krishna 2) Chambal 3) Kosi 4) Sutlej



Answers : 1-2; 2-2; 3-2; 4-2; 5-3; 6-2; 7-3; 8-2; 9-1; 10-2; 11-1; 12-3; 13-4; 14-1; 15-4; 16-2; 17-3; 18-1; 19-4; 20-1


RRB JE Previous Questions|RRB JE Solved Paper Set 9 RRB JE Previous Questions|RRB JE Solved Paper Set 9 Reviewed by Bibi Mohanan on April 17, 2019 Rating: 5

Basic Electrical Engineering Quiz | Cells and Batteries Quiz

April 16, 2019

Basic Electrical Engineering Quiz | Cells and Batteries Quiz


1. The chemical energy in a battery or cell
(a) is a form of kinetic energy.
(b) cannot be replenished once it is gone.
(c) changes to electrical energy when the cell is used.
(d) is caused by electric current.

2. A cell that cannot be recharged is known as
(a) a dry cell.
(b) a wet cell.
(c) a primary cell.
(d) secondary cell.

3. A Weston cell is generally used
(a) as a current reference source.
(b) as a voltage reference source.
(c) as a power reference source.
(d) as a fuel cell.

4.The voltage produced by a battery of multiple cells connected in series is
(a) less than the voltage produced by a cell of the same composition.
(b) the same as the voltage produced by a cell of the same composition.
(c) more than the voltage produced by a cell of the same composition.
(d) always a whole-number multiple of 1.018 V.

5. A direct short-circuit of a large battery can cause
(a) an increase in its voltage.
(b) no harm other than a rapid discharge of its energy.
(c) the current to drop to zero.
(d) a physical rupture or explosion.

6. Suppose a cell of 1.5 V delivers 100 mA for 7 hours and 20 minutes, and then it is replaced
How much energy is supplied during this time?
(a) 0.49 Wh
(b) 1.1 Wh
(c) 7.33 Wh
(d) 733 mWh

7. Suppose a 12-V automotive battery is rated at 36 Ah. If a 100-W, 12-V bulb is connected
across this battery, approximately how long will the bulb stay aglow, assuming the battery has been
fully charged?
(a) 4 hours and 20minutes
(b) 432 hours
(c) 3.6 hours
(d) 21.6 minutes

8. Alkaline cells
(a) are cheaper than zinc-carbon cells.
(b) generally work better in radios than zinc-carbon cells.
(c) have higher voltages than zinc-carbon cells.
(d) have shorter shelf lives than zinc-carbon cells.

9. The energy in a cell or battery depends mainly on
(a) its physical size.
(b) the current drawn from it.
(c) its voltage.
(d) all of the above.

10. In which of the following devices would a lantern battery most likely be found?
(a) A heart pacemaker
(b) An electronic calculator
(c) An LCD wall clock
(d) A two-way portable radio

11. In which of the following devices would a transistor battery be the best power choice?
(a) A heart pacemaker
(b) An electronic calculator
(c) An LCD wall clock
(d) A two-way portable radio

12. For which of the following applications would you choose a lithium battery?
(a) A microcomputer memory backup
(b) A two-way portable radio
(c)A stand-alone solar-electric system
(d) A rechargeable lantern

13. Where would you most likely find a lead-acid battery?
(a) In a portable audio CD player
(b) In an uninterruptible power supply
(c) In an LCD wall clock
(d) In a flashlight

14. A cell or battery that maintains a constant current-delivering capability almost until it dies is
said to have
(a) a large ampere-hour rating.
(b) excellent energy capacity.
(c) a flat discharge curve.
(d) good energy storage capacity per unit volume.

15. Where might you find a nickel-based battery?
(a) In a satellite
(b) In a portable cassette player
(c) In a handheld radio transceiver
(d) More than one of the above

16. A disadvantage of mercury cells and batteries is the fact that
(a) they don’t last as long as other types.
(b) they have a flat discharge curve.
(c) mercury is destructive to the environment.
(d) they need to be recharged often.

17. Which kind of battery should never be used until it dies?
(a) Silver-oxide
(b) Lead-acid
(c) Nickel-based
(d) Mercury

18. The useful current that is delivered by a solar panel can be increased by
(a) connecting capacitors in parallel with the solar cells.
(b) connecting resistors in series with the solar cells.
(c) connecting two or more groups of solar cells in parallel.
(d) connecting resistors in parallel with the solar cells.

19. An interactive solar power system
(a) allows a homeowner to sell power to the electric company.
(b) lets the batteries recharge at night.
(c) powers lights, but not electronic devices.
(d) is totally independent from the electric company

20. An advantage of methanol over hydrogen for use in fuel cells is the fact that
(a) methanol is the most abundant element in the universe.
(b) methanol is not flammable.
(c) methanol is a solid at room temperature.
(d) methanol is easier to transport and store.

Answers


1. c 2. c 3. b 4. c 5. d 6. b 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. d 11. b 12. a 13. b 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. c 18. c 19. a 20. d

Basic Electrical Engineering Quiz | Cells and Batteries Quiz Basic Electrical Engineering Quiz | Cells and Batteries Quiz Reviewed by Bibi Mohanan on April 16, 2019 Rating: 5

Industries Extension Officer Synchronous motor mcq part2

March 30, 2019

Industries Extension Officer Synchronous motor mcq part2



11. In a 3-phase synchronous motor
A. the speed of stator MMF is always more than that of rotor MMF
B. the speed of stator MMF is always less than that of rotor MMF.
The speed of stator MMF is synchronous speed while that of
rotor MMF is zero.
D. rotor and stator MMF are stationary with respect to each other


12. A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load. Its field
current is switched off. The motor will
A. come to stop.
B. continue to run at synchronous speed
C. continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed
D. continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed


13. Asynchronous motor is called a synchronous capacitor, when it is:
A. under loaded
B. under excited
C. over excited
D. overload


14. The size of a synchronous motor is determined by the its..
A.KVA rating
B. kW rating
C. KVAR rating
D. none of the above


15. The synchronous speed for a 3 phase 6-pole induction motor is 1200
rpm. If the number of poles is now reduced to 4 with the frequency
remaining constant, the rotor speed with a slip of 5% will be.
A. 1690 rpm B.1750 rpm C. 1500 rpm D. 1710 rpm


16. The maximum power for a given excitation in a synchronous motor
is developed when the power angle is equal to
A.
B.45
C. 60
D.90



17. Asynchronous motor delivers reactive power when.....
A. over excited
B. under excited
C. normally excited
D. none of the above


18. In synchronous motor out of the following losses, which one will
have the highest proportion ?
A. stator copper losses
B. friction and windage losses
C. eddy current losses
D. iron losses


19. The capacity of a synchronous capacitor is generally in the range of
A. VAR B.MVAR C .KVAR D. none of the above


20.
The cost of leading power factor synchronous motor is. .. unity
power factor motors
B. more than
A. less than
C. about the same
D. none of the above
Industries Extension Officer Synchronous motor mcq part2 Industries Extension Officer Synchronous motor mcq part2 Reviewed by Bibi Mohanan on March 30, 2019 Rating: 5

Industries Extension Officer Synchronous Motors MCQs

March 30, 2019

SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS


11.A three phase synchronous motor will have:
A.no slip rings
B. three slip rings
C. four slip rings
D. two slip rings

2.When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the
damper winding produces
A. damping torque
B. eddy current torque
C. torque aiding the developed torque. 
D. no torque

3. A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading power factors is the
A. squirrel cage induction motor. 
B. wound rotor induction motor
C. synchronous motor
D. DC shunt motor


5. The max'm speed of a synchronous motor in India is:
A. 1500 rpm. B. 1000 r.p.m C. 750 rpm. D.3000 rpm.
The rotor of a synchronous motor is excited with DC when the motor
A. is at standstill 
B. approaches synchronous speed
C. approaches half synchronous speed 
D. none of the above


6. KW rating of synchronous motor exciter is about ....% of the KVA rating of synchronous motor
A. 3
B.
SEC. 10
D. 15

7.
Synchronous speed of an induction motor is always:
A. equal to rotor speed
B. greater than rotor speed
C. twice the rotor speed
D. less than rotor speed

8.
Synchronous speed of an induction motor is 1000 rpm.
What will be the rotor speed, if slip is 3%
A. 30 rpm
B.300 rpm. C. 1700 rpm D.970 rpm


9Asynchronous motor, connected to an infinite bus is working at
leading p.f. It's excitation is
A. less than supply voltage Vs
B. equal to Vs
C.> Vs
D. none of these

10. Synchronizing power comes into play when the rotor speed is
A. equal to Synchronous speed Ns
C. SNs
D. either more
Industries Extension Officer Synchronous Motors MCQs Industries Extension Officer Synchronous Motors MCQs Reviewed by Bibi Mohanan on March 30, 2019 Rating: 5

Industries Extension officer Rank file|Books for Industries Extension officer

March 30, 2019

Industries Extension officer Rank  file|Books for Industries Extension officer



In this post I will discuss about the important books for the preparation of Industries Extension officer Exam.

First of Let us go through the syllabus

Syllabus:

An Objective Type Test 

Part I : Questions based on Educational qualification
Part II: GK, Current Affairs and Renaissance of Kerala

Main Topics:-

Part I - Basic Civil Engineering
Part II - Basic Mechanical Engineering
Part III - Basic Electrical Engineering
Part IV - Basic Electronics
Part V - Basic Computer Science


Industries Extension officer Rank  file


This book is published by Electron college; it is a good book for kick starting the preparation of Industries Extension officer .

you can check it Here. Buy it HERE

you can also check other books in My Notebook Store


Also check ;





Industries Extension officer Rank file|Books for Industries Extension officer Industries Extension officer Rank  file|Books for Industries Extension officer Reviewed by Bibi Mohanan on March 30, 2019 Rating: 5

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